IBPS PO PRELIMS Grand Test - 1 - Part 6

Directions (Q. 86-89): In these questions, a
relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions.
Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
(86-87):
Statements: L > M = P < Q, R > N > G = P
86. Conclusions: I. R > M II. L > G
87. Conclusions: I.N > L II. Q > R
(88-89):
Statements: C < D > B > L, E >T = C
88. Conclusions: I. D > C II. C > B
89. Conclusions: I. B < T II. D > L
Directions (Q. 90-93): In each question below are
given two or more statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give
answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
90. Statements: Some keys are locks.
No lock a window.
All windows are doors.
Conclusions:
I. At least some doors are windows
II. Some keys are not windows
(91-92):
Statements:
All trains are trucks
Some ships are trucks
Noship is a car
91. Conclusions:
I. All trains being ships is a possibility
II. Some trucks are not ships
92. Conclusions:
I. All trucks are definitely not trains
II. Some trucks are not cars
93. Statements:
No word is a page
All pages are papers
Some letters are papers
I. All letters being pages is a possibility
II. No page is a word
Directions (Q. 94-95): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
94. How many boys are there between Q and N in a row of
fifty boys ?
I. Q is six places away from J, who is twentieth from
the left end.
II. Q is twelfth from the left end and N is seventeeth
from the right end.
95. What does ‘#’ mean in a code language?
I. ‘3 $ 5 6’ means ‘flowers are so beautiful’.
II. ‘6 $ 3 #’ means ‘red flowers are beautiful’.
Directions (Q. 96-100): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given below.
L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular
table. Two of them . .re not facing the centre but sit opposite
each other.
R is second to the right of L and third to the right of N.
M is second to the left of N and fourth to the right of O. P is
second to the right of S and is facing the centre. The person
facing outward is an immediate neighbour of R and L. O sits
second to the right of N and is not a neighbour of L
96. Who among the following is an immediate neighbour
of P ?
1) M,S 2) L,Q 3) N,M
4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
97. Who among the following is second to the left of Q?
1) O 2) M 3) R
4) P 5) None of these
98. Who among the following is third to the left of M?
1) N 2) S 3) R
4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
99. Who among the following are not facing the centre?
1) PM 2) NL 3) RQ
4) NQ 5) None of these
100. Who among the following sits second to the right of
N ?
1) L 2) O 3) S
4) Q 5) None of these

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IBPS PO PRELIMS Grand Test - 1 - Part 5

Test - III : Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 66-70): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
J, K, L, M, N, P, Q and R are eight members of a group
in a company. Four of them are engineers and rest are
managers. All of them have a different car, viz Indica, Innova,
Alto, Safari, 120, Santro, Audi and Nano but not necessarily
in the same order. There are three female members in the
group.
P is an engineer and he comes in Innova. Q comes in
Alto. The one who has 120 is not an engineer. No female
has either Santro or Safari. The one who has Safari is not an
engineer. N and J do not own either Santro or Audi. J is a
female and both L and J are not managers. R is a manager
and she has an Audi. K is not a manager and he comes in a
Nano. M is a female.
66. Which of the following is a group of females?
1) J, N, L 2) M, R, K 3) J, M, R
4) M, N, J 5) None of these
67. N has which of the following cars?
1) 120 2) Safari 3) Indica
4) Santro 5) None of these
68. Who among the following has Indica?
1) The one who is a female manager
2) The one who is a male engineer
3) The one who is a female engineer
4) Can’t be determined
5) None of these
69. Who among the following is not a male?
1) M 2) L 3) K
4) N 5) None of these
70. Which of the following statements is true?
1) K is a manager and he has Nano.
2) N is a female and she is a manager.
3) J is an engineer and she has Safari.
4) All are true
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 71-74): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
In a certain code ‘6 2 5’ is written as ‘art is beauty’, ‘4
6 8’ is written as ‘thou art good’, ‘4 3 1 7’ is written as
‘colour good and bad’ and '2 0 9 3' is written as ‘it is colour
effect’
71. What is the code for’effect’?
1) 0 2) 4 3) 9
4) Either 0 or 9 5) None of these
72. If’ 1' is the code for ‘bad’, then what is the code for
‘and’?
1) 4 2) 7 3) 3
4) 6 5) None of these
73. What is the code for ‘thou colour beauty’?
1) 9 8 5 2) 2 5 4 3) 8 3 5
4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
74. What is the code for ‘art’?
1) 6 2) 2 3) 5
4) 8 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 75-76): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Raman starts driving from point A and drives 12 km
towards north. He takes a right turn and drive 20 km. He
now drives 8 km after taking a left turn. Finally he takes a
left turn; and drives 20 km and stops at point B.
75. How far is point A with respect to point B?
l) 18 km 2) 20 km 3) 35 km
4) 25 km 5) None of these
76. Towards which direction does Raman move before
stopping at point B?
1) Northwest 2) South 3) Southeast
4) West 5) None of these
77. If each of the consonants of the word CONCLUDED
is substituted by the letter preceding it and each vowel
is substituted by the letter following it, which of the
following letters would have the same letter on either
side?
1) V 2) B 3) K
4) F 5) None of these
78. If all the letters in the word PURCHASED are arranged
as they appear in the English alphabetical order, then
the position of how many letters will remain unchanged
after the rearrangement?
l) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) Four 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 79-80): These questions are based on
the positions of English alphabets:
79. If DHLRX is one sequence following a logic, and
another fiveletter
sequence following similar type of
logic is AEIOU, thenone
more variation of this type
can be
1) HPJNR 2) BFGKL 3) CFKNT
4) FJNTZ 5) None of these
80. If JKL is to ZYX and FGH is to EDC, then PQR is to
1) TUV 2) UWY 3) MNO
4) Can’t be determined 5) KJP
81. A man pointing to a photograph says, ‘The woman in
the photograph is my sister ’s son’s maternal
grandmother’. How is the woman in the photograph
related to the man’s sister who has no other sister?
1) motherinlaw
2) sister 3) mother
4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
82. In a certain code language FASHION is coded as
FOIHSAN. How is PROBLEM coded in that code?
l) ROBLEMP 2) PELBROM 3) MELBORP
4) PELBORM 5) None of these
Direction (Q. 83-85): The following questions are
based upon the alphabetical series given below:
G Z D R B H S L U Y J A V E K M I O P
83. What will come in place of question (?) mark in the
following series?
ZR DH BU LV ?
l) AO 2) EI 3) JK
4) MI 5) None of these
84. If’GD’ is related to ‘PI’ and ‘ZR’ is related to ‘OM’ in a
certain way, to which of the following is DB related to
following the same pattern?
1) KV 2) IK 3) ME
4) IE 5) None of these
85. How many meaningful English words can be formed
with the help of the letters given in bold, using each
letter only once in each word?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) None of these

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IBPS PO PRELIMS Grand Test - 1 - Part 4

46. X and Y walk around a circular course 100 km from the
same point. If they walk at 5 kmph and 7 kmph
respectively in the same direction when will they meet?
1) 150 hours 2) 180 hours 3) 140 hours
4) 200 hours 5) 160 hours
47. A starts from a place at 7am at a speed of 10 km per
hour and B starts from the same place at 9am at a
speed of 15 km per hour. When will B meet A?
1) 11 am 2) 12 noon 3) l pm
4) 2 pm 5) 3 pm
Directions (Q. 48-52): What should come in place of
question mark (?) in the following questions?
48. 65% of 405 + 37% of 3700 = ?  1191
1) 2723.25 2) 2824.25 3) 2783.75
4) 2823.25 5) 2375.25
49. 32% of ? = 4624
1) 14450 2) 12450 3) 16450
4) 15450 5) 16850
50. 3969 % of 630 + 115.1 = (?)3  8
1) 8 2) 16 3) 12
4) 18 5) 14
51. 2424.64 + 396.28  369.79 + 242.8 = ?
1) 2693.93 2) 2393.39 3) 2693.43
4) 2543.93 5) 2793.39
52. ? 4347
7
3
9
1
3
2 42875
7
1
5
4   of of of of of
1) 4862 2) 5762 3) 3762
4) 4526 5) 4762
Directions (Q. 53-57): Study the following bar chart
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Sales turnover of five companies A, B, C, D and E
in the year 2011-12 and 2012-13
53. What is the approximate difference between the
average sales turnover of all the companies together
between the years 2011 12
and 201213?
1) 59 crore 2) 68 crore 3) 73 crore
4) 78crore 5) 97crore
54. What should have been the sales turnover of company
C in 201112
so that it would have shown an excess of
the same quantum in 2011 12
over 201213
as shown
by the sales turnover of company E?
1) 390.2 crore 2) 328.73 crore 3) 389.3 crore
4) 391.1 crore 5) 399.7 crore
55. Which company shows the maximum, percentage
change in sales turnover between the two years?
1) B 2) A 3) E
4) D 5) C
56. What is the percentage change in the overall sales
turnover of the five companies together between
201112
and 201213?
1) 9.7% 2) 8.82% 3) 13.06%
4) 15.03% 5) 10.42%
57. What is the absolute change in the overall sales
turnover of the live companies together between 201112
and 201213?
1) 278.36 crore 2) 253.3 crore 3) 340.08 crore
4) 301.75 crore 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 58-60): The following questions are
accompanied by three statements I, II and III. You have to
determine which statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer
the question and mark your answer accordingly.
58. How much minimum marks is required to pass an
examination?
I. Student A secured 41% in the examination and
was declared failed by 9 marks. Student B secured
49% marks in the same examination more than the
minimum pass marks.
II. Student A secured 32% of the total marks in the
examination and was declared failed by 19 marks.
If he had secured 23 more marks his percentage
of marks would have been 38%
III. A student will be declared passed if he secures
39% of the total marks.
1) Any three of them 2) Either I or II
3) Only I 4) III and either I or II
5) None of these
59. What was the profit earned on the cost price by Suresh
by selling an article?
I. He got 12% concession on labelled price in buying
the article.
II. He sold it for 2680
III. He earned a profit of 1.5% on the labelled price in
buying that article.
1) Only I and II
2) Only II and III
3) Only either I or III and II together
4) All the three
5) None of the above
60. What is the cost of flooring a rectangular hall?
I. The length and the breadth of the hall are in the
ratio of 5 :4.
II. The length of the hall is 42 metres and the cost of
flooring is 1230 per sq metre.
III. The perimeter of the hall is 210 m and the cost of
flooring is 1230 per sq metre.
1) Only I and II 2) Only I and II
3) Only II 4) Any two of the three
5) None of these.
Directions (Q. 61-65): What approximate value should
come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact
value.)
61. (18.79)2 + (32.95)2  (41.25)2 = ?  1369
1) 1240 2) 1120 3) 1140
4) 1225 5) 1080
62. ? = 2685.699  2085.021 +565.892 973.232
1) 173 2) 194 3) 184
4) 180 5) 190

63. 045 . 3 ? 145 ) 982 . 8 3 08 . 19673 (    
1) 4025 2) 2815 3) 2615
4) 3915 5) 2775
64. 139.799% of 6325.89  ? % of 2299 = 7781.299
1) 38 2) 40 3) 48
4) 42 5) 58
65. 12.89 x 17.65  8.78913.897= ?
1) 12664 2) 14664 3) 10164
4) 11664 5) 10264
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IBPS PO PRELIMS Grand Test - 1 - Part 3

Test-II : Quantitative Aptitude
31. A man sells two houses at the rateof 1.995 lakh each.
On one he gains 5% and on the other he loses 5%. His
gain or loss per cent in the whole transaction is
1) 0.25% loss 2) 0.25% gain 3) 2.5% loss
3) 2.5% gain 5) 1.25% loss
32. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a
person to get 7.8 kg more sugar for 3.90. The original
price of sugar per kg is
1) 10 2) 11.50 3) 12.5
4) 15 5) 10.5
33. In a college election a candidate who got 35% of the
total votes polled was defeated by his rival by 270
votes. Assuming that there were only two candidates
in the election, the total number of votes polled was
1) 1000 2) 800 3) 900
4) 1200 5) 1250
34. In a bag there are coins of 25 paise and 10 paise in the
ratio of 6 : 17. If the bag contains 16 then the number
of 10paise
coins is
1) 30 2) 40 3) 70
4) 85 5) 65
35. If six men working 8 hours a day earn 840 per week,
then 9 men working 6 hours per day will earn per week
1) 940 2) 945 3) 1620
4) 1680 5) 1245
36. 60 kg of an alloy A is mixed with 100 kg of alloy B. If
alloy A has lead and tin in the ratio of 3 : 2 and alloy B
has tin and copper in the ratio of 1 : 4 the amount of tin
in the new alloy is
1) 36 kg 2) 44 kg 3) 80 kg
4) 53 kg 5) 45 kg
37. A and B enter into a partnership. A contributes
16,000 and B 12,000. At the end of 6 months C
joins them with a capital of 20,000. In what ratio
should they divide their annual profit?
1) 8 : 6 : 5 2) 4 : 3 : 5 3) 5 : 6 : 8
4) 5 : 3 : 4 5) 5 : 7 : 8
38. Three cubes of side 3 cm, 4 cm, 5 cm respectively are
melted to form a new cube. The side of the new cube
will be
l) 6 cm 2) 6.5 cm 3) 70 cm
4) 5 cm 5) 4.5 cm
39. The area of a circle is 154 sq cm. Its circumference is
l) 44 cm 2) 88 cm 3) 154 cm
4) 176cm 5) 164cm
40. Two pipes fill a tank in 12 hours and 15 hours
respectively while a third pipe empties the tank in 18
hours. If all three pipes operate simultaneously, in
what time will the tank be full?
l) 10 hours 2)10 17
10
hours 3) 11 hours
4) 9 hours 5) 17
1 12 hours
41. The total number of boys in a class is 45% more than
the total number of girls in the class. If the total number
of boys and girls together in the class is 294 then
what is the difference between the total number of
boys and the total number of girls?
1) 70 2) 52 3) 54
4) 76 5) 78
42. A man drives 150 km from A to B in 3 hours and 20
minutes, and returns to the place in 4 hours and 10
minutes. If S is the average speed of the entire trip
then the average speed for the journey from A to B
exceeds S by
l) 5.0 kmph 2) 4.5kmph 3) 4.0kmph
4) 2.5 kmph 5) 5.5kmph
43. The mean annual salary paid to all employees was
5,000. The mean annual salary paid to male and female
employees were 5,200 and 4,200 respectively. The
percentage of male workers in the company is
1) 50% 2) 60% 3) 70%
4) 80% 5) 65%
44. A train runs at 45 km per hour. How far does it go in 6
seconds?
l) 72 m 2) 60m 3) 75 m
4) 70 m 5) 76 m
45. A journalist travelled 1200 km by air, which formed
5
2
of his trip. He travelled onethird
of the whole trip
by car and the rest by train. The distance travelled by
train is
l) 220 km 2) 800 km 3) 2600 km
4) 1800 km 5) 700 km
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IBPS PO PRELIMS Grand Test - 1 - Part 2

Directions (Q. 21-25): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
In December 2011, a key advisory group on asset
reconstruction companies (ARC) sector reforms, appointed
by the government, had recommended, among others, thus:
“Since ARC industry is capitalintensive,
and the existing
investors lack adequate resources to fund the expansions,
ARCs may be allowed to tap capital market. This will also
increase public scrutiny and higher disclosures.”
The advisory group also suggested that ARCs may
be allowed to raise equity from market in public issue of
shares. This has assumed critical importance, particularly
after August 2014, when the Reserve Bank has raised
mandatory investment in securities receipts issued by an
ARC from 5 per cent to 15 per cent. Also, nonperforming
assets (NPA) in the banking system have been rising at a
menacing pace. From a gross NPA level of l .4 lakh crore
in 201112,
this is estimated now at 3.4 lakh crore as of
March 2015. On the one hand, gross NPAs have risen nearly
three times, and on the other hand, there has been a
threefold
rise in mandatory investment required by ARCs.
As per a recent study by rating agency Crisil released on
May 12,2015, gross NPAs in the banking system are
projected to rise to 4 lakh crore. The ARCs with an
estimated capital base of 4,000 crore only stand helplessly
and grossly inadequate in terms of financial muscle to rise
to the occasion.
This necessitates the ARCs to build up their capital
base substantially for an effective participatory role in NPA
sales. In fact, ARCs have been set up to acquire NPAs of
banks or financial institutions with the objective of focused
management and optimal recovery, thereby relieving banks
and financial institutions of the burden of NPAs and
allowing the banks to focus on core activities.
In the Indian context, ARCs have been permitted to
float Trusts for resolution of the NPAs acquired and funding
is through issuance of security receipts, which are akin to
passthrough
certificates with underlying cash flow from
the NPAs acquired. However, in the absence of thirdparty
investor money, the bank that sells NPAs doubles up as
investor in security receipts — which is estimated around
53,000 crore, of which a substantial portion is invested by
the selling banks themselves. In effect, there is no effective
risk mitigation at the bank; credit risk being only substituted
by another risk — investment risk. For a real cleanup
of the
system, fresh money should come in.
A meaningful and plausible solution is to decontrol
ARCs by permitting them unrestricted access to capital
market for equity and delinking investment in security
receipts from only a select group of qualified institutional
buyers (QIBs) and throwing it open for all institutional
players in debt trading. Further, provisions like no sponsor
being able to hold in excess of 50 per cent equity should be
dispensed with, to enable promoters to bring in additional
equity without dependence on another set of investors.
21. Why was it suggested that ARCs be allowed to tap
the capital market? Select the most suitable answer.
(A) Because ARC industry needs a lot of money and
the only solution to this problem is to allow it to
tap capital market.
(B) ARC industry has a better experience of operating
in capital market.
(C) The existing investors lack adequate resources to
fund the expansions.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B) 5) Only (B) and (C)
22. Which of the following statements is not true in the
context of the passage?
(A) After 2014 the central bank raised mandatory
investment in securities receipts issued by an
ARC from 5% to 15%.
(B) According to a key advisory group on asset
reconstruction companies reforms, to increase
public scrutiny and higher disclosures ARCs
should be permitted to operate in capital market.
(C) By March 2015, gross non performing assets
had quadrupled.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B) 5) Only (B) and (C)
23. What is/are the objectives of setting up of ARCs?
1) To acquire NPAs of banks and financial institutions.
2) To relieve banks and financial institutions from the
burden of NPAs.
3) To raise equity from capital market.
4) Only l) and 2)
5) All 1), 2) and 3)
24. Which of the following statements regarding ARCs in
the Indian context reflects the true picture?
1) ARCs have been allowed to float trusts for
resolution of the NPAs acquired.
2) The funding of ARCs is through issuance of
security receipts.
3) Security receipts are similar to passthrough
certificates with underlying cash flow from the
NPAs acquired.
4) According to the author, to mitigate the risk at
the bank, ARCs should be decontrolled and
permitted free access to capital market.
5) All the above
25. What is the meaning of the phrase ‘menacing pace’
as used in the passage?
1) satisfactory speed 2) dangerous speed
3) slow speed 4) uniform speed
5) None of these

Directions (Q. 26-30): In the following passage, some
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate
words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.
Only a mind that has gained a certain amount of
stability can (26) that the objects of experience, (27) the
cause of much ill, are not (28) or devoid of divine presence.
An object becomes the source of ill at that moment when
the intellect not only objectifies it, but also objectifies the
divine (29) due to which the object exists. Each object, in
fact, does not exist in itself. As such, the objects of (30) are
nonreal. It follows, then, that the intellect that objectifies
the nonreal
objects, too, is nonreal or apparent.
26. 1) disregard 2) exclude 3) apprehend
4) comprehend 5) overlook
27. 1) despite 2) although 3) when
4) still 5) albeit
28. 1) deprived 2) cut off 3) shown
4) robbed 5) bereft
29. 1) being 2) reality 3) presence
4) latency 5) distance
30. 1) perception 2) approach 3) ignorance
4) stupidity 5) conceit

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IBPS PO PRELIMS Grand Test - 1 - Part 1

Test-I : English Language
Directions (Q. 1-5): In each of the following questions
four words are given, of which two words are most nearly
the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which
are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and
indicate the number of the correct letter combination by
darkening the appropriate oval in your Answer Sheet.
01. (A) Restraint (B) Jovial
(C) Gloomy (D) Evil
1) A B
2) B C
3) A C
4) A D
5) B D
02. (A) Insurrection (B) Contraption
(C) Imagination (D) Uprising
1) A C
2) B C
3) A D
4) B D
5) C D
03. (A) Resist (B) Benefit
(C) Meddle (D) Intervene
1) A B
2) A C
3) B D
4) C D
5) A D
04. (A) Obsequies (B) Hounded
(C) Funeral (D) Departure
1) B C
2) A D
3) C D
4) B D
5) A C
05. (A) Pilfer (B) Respect
(C) Suffer (D) Offer
1) A D
2) BD
3) A C
4) B C
5) A B
Directions (Q. 6-10): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the
answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
06. 1) My elder brother is planning / 2) to go abroad / 3)
as soon as he will retire / 4) in December next year. / 5)
No error
07. 1) A look at migration data suggests / 2) that the
number of deaths do not / 3) necessarily indicate the
crisis / 4) that is being described. / 5) No error
08. 1) The decision has immediately drawn a sharp
response / 2) from the Congress and the SP, who along
with / 3) other Opposition parties have been stalling
/ 4) the Bill’s passage in the Rajya Sabha. / 5) No error
09. 1) For expecting the organisation / 2) to pay for the
transport / 3) of the personal belongings / 4) of the
employee is not fair / 5) No error
10. 1) Ahead of Modi’s visit to Bangladesh, External
Affairs Minister said / 2) agreements on the
contentious issue / 3) of sharing of river waters
including that of Teesta / 4) would not be on the
agenda. / 5) No error
Directions (Q. 11-15): In the following questions, a
sentence has been given with some of its parts in bold. To
make the sentence grammatically correct, you have to
replace the bold part with the correct alternative given
below. If the sentence is correct as it is, give 5) as your
answer (ie No correction required).
11. Had Napoleon not taken offence at the demand that ,
he should withdraw beyond the Vistula, there should
have been no war.
1) would have 2) could have been
3) could have 4) would have been
5) No correction required
12. Each man lives for himself, using his freedom to attain
his personal aims and feels with his whole being that
he can now do or abstain to do this or that action.
1) absent to do 2) abstain from doing
3) absent from doing 4) abstain not to do
5) No correction required
13. The higher a man stands on the social ladder, more
people he is connected to and the more power he has
over other, the more evident is the predestination
and inevitability of his every action.
1) the more people he is connected with
2) more people is he connected to
3) the more people he is connected by
4) is he connected to more people
5) No correction required
14. According to English literary usage, both the
Mahabharata and the Ramayana are called epics.
1) Mahabharata and Ramayana
2) the Mahabharata and Ramayana
3) the Mahabharata as well as the Ramayana
4) Mahabharata and the Ramayana
5) No correction required
15. In my literary essays I have often spoken on the
application of the experimental method to novel and
to drama.
1) have often spoke to 2) have oftenly spoke of
3) have often spoken for 4) have often spoken of
5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 16-20): Each question below has two
blanks, each blank indicating that something has been
omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best
fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
16. As the Central government ___ more fiscal freedom
to the states, they seem to be cutting ___ to social
sectors, especially agriculture and allied areas
1) revolves, means 2) involves, resources
3) constriets, distribution 4) constricts, distribution
5) disallow, consumption
17. Today, players are getting ___ aggressive about
recovering lost ___ and the market is opening up too.
1) nearly, faiths 2) harshly, fields
3) barely, confidence 4) extremely, condition
5) increasingly, ground
18. The proposed Environmental Laws Bill ___
substantial damage as an act of violation, omission or
negligence by which the community at ___ is affected
due to pollution damage to land, air to water.
1) revokes, all 2) includes, least
3) inserts, large 4) excludes, par
5) empowers, best
19. A Hawaiian fisherman died when a swordfish he ___
spread in a harbour on the Big Island ___ him in the
chest with its sharp bill
1) had, struck 2) has, strike
3) was, inserted 4) did, left
5) could, shot
20. Around 20 children were rushed to BJR hospital with
___ of food poisoning after they consumed the
afternoon meal at a ____ anganvadi
1) signs, nearby 2) symptoms, nearby
3) fever, nearest 4) symbol, near
5) characteristics, large

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